Which parasite causes larva currens, a migratory linear rash that moves more rapidly than cutaneous larva migrans?
QUESTION 2
Why is current antiretroviral therapy unable to eradicate HIV infection completely?
QUESTION 3
A patient with leprosy has widespread nodules, skin infiltration, loss of eyebrows and early nasal collapse. Which form is most likely?
QUESTION 4
Which pair of fungal groups is explicitly excluded from the stated coverage of blood (1,3)-β-D-glucan testing?
QUESTION 5
A patient has a single skin lesion with a well-defined active edge and anaesthesia within the lesion. Which form of leprosy is described?
QUESTION 6
Which form of Entamoeba histolytica transmits amoebiasis between humans?
QUESTION 7
Which investigation can distinguish Entamoeba histolytica from morphologically identical E. dispar and E. moshkovskii?
QUESTION 8
Which property of an infecting Streptococcus pyogenes strain permits the development of scarlet fever?
QUESTION 9
Bacteraemia or endocarditis caused by which organism is associated with large bowel malignancy?
QUESTION 10
What is the primary mechanism of CD4 lymphocyte destruction in HIV infection?
QUESTION 11
What is the characteristic appearance of material aspirated from an amoebic liver abscess?
QUESTION 12
A patient with advanced HIV has a single homogeneously enhancing periventricular lesion with surrounding oedema. CSF PCR detects EBV DNA. Which diagnosis is most likely?
QUESTION 13
A child recovering from scarlet fever has residual petechial lesions in the antecubital fossa. What is this finding called?
QUESTION 14
A neutropenic patient develops right lower quadrant abdominal pain. Which condition should this finding raise concern for?
QUESTION 15
Which antimicrobial treatment approach is required for all patients with leprosy?
QUESTION 16
A patient with HIV has stroke-like episodes, cognitive impairment and visual impairment. MRI appearances suggest progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy. Which CSF finding completes the stated diagnostic combination?
QUESTION 17
Why is folinic acid included with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine in the standard treatment of cerebral toxoplasmosis?
QUESTION 18
Which abnormality contributes to the increased risk of Streptococcus pneumoniae infection in people with HIV?
QUESTION 19
A patient presents with ocular pain and blurred vision. Slit-lamp examination reveals characteristic dendritic ulcers. Which diagnosis best explains these findings?
QUESTION 20
Which skin lesion pattern characterises the enlarging rash of erythema migrans in Lyme disease?
QUESTION 21
Which structures are found within the daughter cysts of hydatid disease?
QUESTION 22
An injection drug-user has uncomplicated right-sided endocarditis caused by MSSA. What duration of high-dose intravenous flucloxacillin is described?
QUESTION 23
In the life cycle of Taenia solium, what happens to cysticerci swallowed by humans?
QUESTION 24
Which once-a-week second-generation lipoglycopeptide may be useful when venous access is difficult in an injection drug-user?
QUESTION 25
Which rash morphology is listed for primary HIV infection?
QUESTION 26
Which ingested stage of Taenia solium develops into cysticerci at sites such as the human brain and muscle?
QUESTION 27
A patient with scarlet fever has a petechial rash in the cubital fossa. What is this finding called?
QUESTION 28
An injection drug-user has right-sided endocarditis caused by MRSA. Which treatment regimen is usually used?
QUESTION 29
Which virus is the leading cause of sporadic viral encephalitis?
QUESTION 30
A patient with eczema develops rapidly spreading HSV-1 infection in eczematous skin. What is this complication called?
QUESTION 31
Which organism causes yaws, a granulomatous disease mainly involving the skin and bones?
QUESTION 32
An immunocompromised patient with chickenpox has prolonged viral shedding and requires prolonged antiviral treatment. Which lesion-related endpoint should guide treatment duration?
QUESTION 33
Why are antivirals not normally required for uncomplicated primary varicella zoster virus infection in children?
QUESTION 34
Where are Koplik spots seen in the early stages of clinical measles?
QUESTION 35
An adult has uncomplicated chickenpox. Presentation within what interval after the onset of vesicles supports antiviral use?
QUESTION 36
What proportion of infants infected with congenital CMV will have long-term CNS sequelae?
QUESTION 37
An injection drug user has staphylococcal bacteraemia. Which associated diagnosis must specifically be considered?
QUESTION 38
A pregnant woman develops primary CMV infection. What is the approximate chance of transmission to the fetus?
QUESTION 39
What is the period of infectivity of rubella relative to the onset of rash?
QUESTION 40
Which external anatomical contour is lost on the affected side in typical unilateral mumps?