Medicine chapter
MEDICINE

Infectious disease

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Questions

QUESTION 81
Which antenatal HIV testing approach is listed among measures to prevent perinatal transmission?
QUESTION 82
Which routes are described for the transmission of trachoma?
QUESTION 83
What feature of HIV is identified as the reason an effective vaccine remains elusive?
QUESTION 84
Which tick developmental stages can transmit the organism causing Lyme disease to humans?
QUESTION 85
Which finding, together with abnormal liver fat accumulation, defines metabolic dysfunction-associated steatotic liver disease (MASLD)?
QUESTION 86
In the leprosy spectrum, instability in the central overlap region predisposes to which reaction?
QUESTION 87
Which organism causes human granulocytic anaplasmosis, a co-infection encountered with Lyme disease?
QUESTION 88
At what stage of typhoid fever do rose spots on the trunk typically appear?
QUESTION 89
A patient with severe falciparum malaria develops hypoglycaemia. Which intravenous dextrose regimen is specified for immediate management?
QUESTION 90
What is usually the first and most common symptom of Schistosoma haematobium infection?
QUESTION 91
Schistosoma haematobium infection has a strong epidemiological association with which bladder malignancy?
QUESTION 92
Why is liver function initially preserved despite portal hypertension in Schistosoma mansoni infection?
QUESTION 93
Which Leishmania species causes chiclero ulcers?
QUESTION 94
A patient with severe falciparum malaria is to receive intravenous quinine. Which medication history requires omission of the quinine loading dose?
QUESTION 95
Which infective material must be ingested to acquire human cysticercosis?
QUESTION 96
Which gadolinium-enhanced T1 MRI finding is described as typical of neurocysticercomas?
QUESTION 97
A patient with anergy to Leishmania develops diffuse cutaneous leishmaniasis, with spread from an initial facial ulcer to the whole body. What is the characteristic morphology of the disseminated lesions?
QUESTION 98
A patient with falciparum malaria develops shock, termed algid malaria. Which associated condition should be suspected immediately?
QUESTION 99
Apparently healed cutaneous leishmaniasis sores repeatedly relapse, producing recidivans or lupoid leishmaniasis. Which species is associated with this pattern?
QUESTION 100
Which pair of Plasmodium species forms hypnozoites?
QUESTION 101
Why is Candida albicans classified as a yeast despite its ability to form hyphae and pseudohyphae?
QUESTION 102
A patient with bloodstream infection has persistent suspicion of endocarditis despite negative transthoracic echocardiography. Which investigation should be considered next?
QUESTION 103
Which cause of infectious gastroenteritis is classified as protozoal with a long incubation period?
QUESTION 104
Pulmonary nodules suspected to represent cryptococcosis resemble tuberculosis or malignancy. What is required to establish the diagnosis of these cryptococcal nodules?
QUESTION 105
Which population is most susceptible to acute diarrhoea in high-income countries?
QUESTION 106
Which Cryptococcus species is specifically associated with severe disease in immunocompetent hosts?
QUESTION 107
Endocarditis caused by Streptococcus gallolyticus subsp. gallolyticus should prompt investigation for which associated condition?
QUESTION 108
A patient with pyrexia of unknown origin has no identified cause, significant weight loss, or signs of another disease. What is the expected long-term mortality?
QUESTION 109
Which organism is listed as a cause of gastroenteritis due to toxin in food with an incubation period of less than 6 hours?
QUESTION 110
A patient with bloodstream infection has focal knee pain and an aortic graft. Which approach to imaging is supported?
QUESTION 111
A patient has symptomatic, mild pulmonary cryptococcosis without evidence of systemic disease. What is the usual treatment?
QUESTION 112
A patient describes stools as separate hard lumps resembling nuts that are difficult to pass. Which Bristol stool chart type corresponds to this description?
QUESTION 113
Which parasitic infection is specifically described as causing haemoptysis?
QUESTION 114
During assessment of eosinophilia for a parasitic cause, fever is specifically associated with which syndrome?
QUESTION 115
A patient with a haematological malignancy develops reddish nodules or plaques, fever and leucocytosis. Which non-infectious cause of fever matches this presentation?
QUESTION 116
Which organism causing diarrhoea is described as usually acquired in South Asia or sub-Saharan and southern Africa?
QUESTION 117
Which combination of immune defects is specifically attributed to glucocorticoids?
QUESTION 118
A vaccinated traveller develops unexplained fever after returning from the tropics. Which infection cannot be virtually excluded on the basis of vaccination, given the stated vaccine effectiveness?
QUESTION 119
A patient who injects drugs presents with fever and prominent systolic ‘V’ waves in the jugular venous pulse. Which valvular lesion is associated with this finding?
QUESTION 120
A returning traveller with eosinophilia reports prominent pruritus. Which parasitic infection is specifically associated with this symptom?
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