Which component of motor nerve conduction testing can provide information about the condition of nerve roots?
QUESTION 2
In the described CT image of ischaemic stroke, which arterial segment contains the proximal hyperdense artery sign?
QUESTION 3
During repetitive nerve stimulation at 3–15 stimuli per second, a patient shows a decrement in compound muscle action potential amplitude. Which disorder is associated with this finding?
QUESTION 4
A patient has spinothalamic sensory loss in a ‘cape’ distribution. Which lesion is associated with this finding?
QUESTION 5
What limitation should be considered when using dermatomal maps to assess a spinal sensory level?
QUESTION 6
A patient has ipsilateral facial sensory loss and contralateral sensory loss over the body below the vertex. Where is the lesion?
QUESTION 7
Which inflammatory myopathy is also listed as a paraneoplastic cause of acquired proximal myopathy?
QUESTION 8
Which inflammatory myopathy is specifically described as having predominantly distal effects?
QUESTION 9
When should rehabilitation begin in a patient receiving acute stroke care?
QUESTION 10
In median motor nerve conduction testing, prolonged latency after stimulation at the wrist indicates dysfunction at which site?
QUESTION 11
A patient has an ipsilateral dorsal column and motor deficit with a contralateral spinothalamic deficit. Which lesion accounts for this pattern?
QUESTION 12
Where is the distal hyperdense artery sign located in the described non-contrast CT image of ischaemic stroke?
QUESTION 13
Which electrolyte abnormality is linked to liquorice, diuretic and purgative abuse among the causes of acquired proximal myopathy?
QUESTION 14
A patient with a cerebellar infarct and mass effect develops obstructive hydrocephalus. Which intervention is described as potentially beneficial?
QUESTION 15
An acute stroke patient's CT shows no evidence of early infarction. Which corresponding imaging technique is described as demonstrating early infarction in the left MCA territory?
QUESTION 16
Which glial cells have foot processes adjoining small blood vessels and contributing to the blood–brain barrier?
QUESTION 17
Which pathological change is an important substrate of disability in the later, progressive phase of multiple sclerosis?
QUESTION 18
Which component of neurological assessment provides the basis for most diagnoses made by experienced clinicians?
QUESTION 19
A patient being investigated for a cerebral infection has raised intracranial pressure. Which investigation should precede any lumbar puncture?
QUESTION 20
A patient has loss of pain and temperature sensation in an ‘onion skin’ distribution. Which neural structure is implicated?
QUESTION 21
A patient with multiple sclerosis has a gadolinium-enhancing lesion on T1-weighted brain MRI. What pathological process does this enhancement suggest?
QUESTION 22
Which nervous system cells derive from monocytes/macrophages and help fight infection and remove damaged cells?
QUESTION 23
Which cells produce the myelin investing peripheral nerve axons?
QUESTION 24
Which antigen is typically targeted by antibodies associated with neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder?
QUESTION 25
Longitudinally extensive transverse myelitis typical of neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorder extends over at least how many vertebral segments?
QUESTION 26
Which diffusion-weighted MRI appearance favours a cerebral abscess over a tumour?
QUESTION 27
What mechanism accounts for the majority of paraneoplastic neurological disorders described in patients without cerebral metastases?
QUESTION 28
Which molecular target is bound by natalizumab to inhibit lymphocyte entry across the blood–brain barrier in multiple sclerosis?
QUESTION 29
What is the intended effect of the Epley manoeuvre in benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?
QUESTION 30
A patient has a disabling relapse of multiple sclerosis that does not respond to steroids. Which treatment is reserved for this situation?
QUESTION 31
What is the underlying mechanism of benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?
QUESTION 32
Which condition is classified as an inflammatory or immune-mediated cause of acquired ataxia?
QUESTION 33
Which neural structure is compressed by the posterior fossa acoustic neuroma described in the MRI caption?
QUESTION 34
What must be demonstrated for siponimod or ocrelizumab to be used to prevent disability in progressive forms of multiple sclerosis as described in the source?
QUESTION 35
During which phase of multiple sclerosis are disease-modifying immunotherapies most efficacious?
QUESTION 36
A patient experiences false recognition, described as déjà vu, immediately before a generalised tonic–clonic seizure. Which cortical region does this suggest as the site of seizure onset?
QUESTION 37
Which seizure trigger is specifically restricted to generalised epilepsy syndromes in the source?
QUESTION 38
Under which category of acquired ataxia is superficial siderosis listed?
QUESTION 39
In genetic generalised epilepsies, where do the abnormal electrical discharges originate before spreading simultaneously to all areas of the cortex?
QUESTION 40
A patient with brief vertigo when rolling over in bed undergoes the Hallpike manoeuvre. Which nystagmus pattern supports benign paroxysmal positional vertigo?