Which antiarrhythmic drug is listed as a toxic cause of acquired ataxia?
QUESTION 42
A patient develops vertical gaze palsy, convergence disorders and convergence retraction nystagmus. Which brainstem region is implicated?
QUESTION 43
Ocular disease has been excluded in a patient with ocular pain. Inflammatory or infiltrative lesions at the orbital apex or cavernous sinus usually involve which group of cranial nerves?
QUESTION 44
After flowing over the surface of the central nervous system, cerebrospinal fluid is eventually reabsorbed into which system?
QUESTION 45
A patient with Bell palsy develops hyperacusis. Involvement of which nerve branch explains this symptom?
QUESTION 46
A patient with spinal cord compression has dermatomal sensory impairment and corresponding lower motor signs at the level of compression. Which additional structure is involved?
QUESTION 47
A patient has an ipsilateral third nerve palsy, contralateral upper motor neuron facial palsy and contralateral hemiplegia. Where is the lesion?
QUESTION 48
What is the usual time course of symptom onset in spinal cord compression?
QUESTION 49
Which manifestations usually occur early in spinal cord compression?
QUESTION 50
Which temporal lobe function is particularly associated with Wernicke’s area?
QUESTION 51
A patient has an ipsilateral sixth nerve palsy, ipsilateral lower motor neuron facial palsy and contralateral hemiplegia. Where is the lesion?
QUESTION 52
Which change in pupils commonly makes fundoscopy more difficult in old age?
QUESTION 53
Which structure is responsible for homeostasis, including temperature and appetite control?
QUESTION 54
Which examination finding characterises the facial weakness in Bell palsy?
QUESTION 55
A patient with unilateral facial weakness has vesicles in the ear and on the palate. Which infection does this finding suggest?
QUESTION 56
Which oral drug is listed for managing spasticity and contractures after stroke?
QUESTION 57
A patient with cerebral venous thrombosis also has venous haemorrhage. Which anticoagulation approach is described as beneficial?
QUESTION 58
Which is classified as a predisposing systemic cause of cerebral venous thrombosis?
QUESTION 59
A patient has a dilated tonic pupil, light–near dissociation and generalised areflexia. Which syndrome best fits these findings?
QUESTION 60
In a patient who survives the acute stages of cerebral infarction, which process begins healing by clearing dying tissue?
QUESTION 61
A patient has a small pupil, ipsilateral anhidrosis and partial ptosis. Which neural supply is affected?
QUESTION 62
How does increasing delay to alteplase treatment affect estimated recovery from stroke compared with control treatment?
QUESTION 63
A patient has symmetrical pupils, but the swinging torch test reveals dilatation in the abnormal eye. Damage to which structure accounts for this finding?
QUESTION 64
Which is listed as a fixed risk factor for stroke?
QUESTION 65
Broca aphasia is associated with pathology in which region?
QUESTION 66
A patient has fluent speech, good comprehension and poor repetition. Which aphasia best fits this pattern?
QUESTION 67
Which investigation demonstrates a filling defect in the affected vessel in cerebral venous thrombosis?
QUESTION 68
A patient can read but cannot write. Which category of language disorder encompasses this selective impairment?
QUESTION 69
A patient reports unpleasant leg sensations relieved by movement, poor sleep and daytime somnolence. What is the most likely diagnosis?
QUESTION 70
During seizure first aid, which pattern of recurrent convulsions requires urgent medical attention?
QUESTION 71
Which condition underlies seizures in 30%–50% of patients over 50 years of age?
QUESTION 72
A person's convulsions have just ceased. Which position is recommended during seizure first aid?
QUESTION 73
At 20-year follow-up, what proportion of patients with epilepsy are seizure-free without drugs for the preceding 5 years?
QUESTION 74
A patient experiences sudden loss of muscle tone when laughing. Which narcolepsy symptom does this represent?
QUESTION 75
Which investigation pair is listed specifically to determine whether recurrent attacks are truly epileptic?
QUESTION 76
A patient taking an antipsychotic develops daytime motor restlessness. Which condition should be distinguished from restless legs syndrome in this setting?
QUESTION 77
A 6-year-old child has frequent brief absence seizures. Which EEG finding is characteristic of childhood absence epilepsy?
QUESTION 78
Which DaT SPECT uptake pattern is described in Parkinson disease?
QUESTION 79
Which bacterium is specifically linked to skull fracture in the listed causes of meningitis?
QUESTION 80
Which form of epilepsy can present as delirium in an older patient?