Which assessment is essential before surgery for CSOM to confirm the degree and type of hearing loss?
QUESTION 2
In which situation are systemic antibiotics useful in the treatment of CSOM?
QUESTION 3
Why can hearing loss become mixed in long-standing CSOM?
QUESTION 4
In CSOM with a central perforation, which events most commonly coincide with the appearance of ear discharge?
QUESTION 5
Which description of hearing loss is given in the assessment of CSOM with a central perforation?
QUESTION 6
A patient treated for CSOM now has a dry ear with a persistent perforation and hearing loss. Which procedure is described for restoring hearing at this stage?
QUESTION 7
A patient with CSOM and a central perforation hears better when the ear is discharging than when it is dry. What explains this paradoxical improvement?
QUESTION 8
Which appearance of an aural polyp is characteristic of tubotympanic disease, in contrast to atticoantral disease?
QUESTION 9
During imaging assessment of CSOM, which finding is identified as a feature of atticoantral disease?
QUESTION 10
An ear with a central perforation appears dry on routine examination. Which assessment may reveal hidden discharge?
QUESTION 11
A patient with CSOM develops vertigo. Erosion of which structure is indicated by this symptom?
QUESTION 12
A patient with CSOM develops facial weakness. Which structural change does this indicate?
QUESTION 13
Which imaging investigation is preferred to mastoid X-rays because it provides more information in CSOM assessment?
QUESTION 14
In CSOM assessment, which investigation helps select an appropriate antibiotic for local or systemic use?
QUESTION 15
Tubotympanic disease is mostly localized to which part of the middle ear cleft?
QUESTION 16
A patient with CSOM develops diplopia. Which complication is associated with this finding?
QUESTION 17
Why should an aural polyp in CSOM never be avulsed?
QUESTION 18
In tubotympanic disease, which part of the ossicular chain is particularly liable to necrosis?
QUESTION 19
Which tissue reaction characterizes cholesterol granuloma?
QUESTION 20
Ossicular destruction in atticoantral disease may be limited to which part of the incus?
QUESTION 21
Which tympanic membrane finding is a classical sign of tubercular otitis media?
QUESTION 22
A cholesterol granuloma occupies the mesotympanum behind an intact tympanic membrane. What colour does the membrane appear?
QUESTION 23
Which pre-existing tympanic membrane abnormality characterizes secondary acquired cholesteatoma?
QUESTION 24
Which sites are involved by osteitis in atticoantral disease?
QUESTION 25
Why is ear discharge often foul-smelling in tubercular otitis media?
QUESTION 26
In an ear affected by cholesteatoma, which local finding can account for bleeding during cleaning?
QUESTION 27
When should reconstructive middle ear surgery be performed in a patient receiving treatment for tuberculous otitis media?
QUESTION 28
Which proposed mechanism of primary acquired cholesteatoma begins with persistent negative pressure in the attic?
QUESTION 29
A patient with cholesteatoma retains normal hearing despite ossicular destruction. What explains this 'cholesteatoma hearer' phenomenon?
QUESTION 30
What is the stated indication for mastoid surgery in tuberculous otitis media?
QUESTION 31
A patient with a recently discharging ear reports complete cessation of discharge. Which mechanism makes this finding concerning?
QUESTION 32
A patient with tubercular otitis media has severe hearing loss out of proportion to symptoms. Involvement of which structure accounts for an additional sensorineural component?
QUESTION 33
A child has conductive hearing loss and a white mass behind an intact tympanic membrane. Which diagnosis matches this presentation?
QUESTION 34
Which combination of anatomical involvement and perforation characterizes tubotympanic chronic suppurative otitis media?
QUESTION 35
Which proposed mechanism of cholesteatoma formation involves middle ear mucosa changing into squamous epithelium after repeated infections?
QUESTION 36
Which anatomical result defines a canal wall down procedure for cholesteatoma?
QUESTION 37
In the invagination theory of cholesteatoma formation, which structure forms the cholesteatoma matrix?
QUESTION 38
What functional effects can fibrosis and adhesions resulting from healing in the middle ear produce?
QUESTION 39
A retracted tympanic membrane lies on the promontory and ossicles, partially obliterating the middle ear space. The middle ear mucosa is intact, and the membrane can be lifted with a suction tip. Which stage of retraction is present?
QUESTION 40
When may myringoplasty or tympanoplasty be performed to restore hearing during surgical management of cholesteatoma?